International: Is polygyny a “divine rightÀ, sir?

Maputo, 3 August – Each time I see an image of President Jacob Zuma with his wives, I’m reminded of what is happening in my own backyard. Although not a polygamist (yet) my dad is a bigamist. You see, Valy Senior is a Moslem but I very much doubt religion played a part in his decision. He’s not a practicing Moslem so I reckon if it’s for religious reasons, then I think he got it wrong.

I’d think most Moslems take the text of the Holy Qur’an to be the word of God, and nobody should dispute or break it. But texts, especially old texts, are interpreted and re-interpreted, and in most cases, to suit men.

Let’s take this Qur’an verse as translated by Yusuf Ali, “And if you fear that you shall not be able to deal justly with the orphan-girls, then marry (other) women of your choice, two or three, or four but if you fear that you shall not be able to deal justly (with them), then only one or (the captives and the slaves) that your right hands possess. That is nearer to prevent you from doing injustice” (Surat an-Nisa’: 3).

Moslem interpreters of yore have taken this to mean that believers received a “divine right” to marry up to four women. However, lately there have been columns of arguments challenging the assertion of “divine right” to polygamy.

First of all, what is polygamy? The Webster’s New World Dictionary defines polygamy as “the practice of having two or more wives or husbands at the same time.” Since Moslem women are not allowed to have two or more husbands, the word to use for men who marry more than one wife is polygyny. The same dictionary defines polygyny as “a practice of having two or more wives at the same time.”

So the practice that we have come to understand as polygamy is in fact polygyny. As a gender activist I find it very difficult to square my father and that of other men’s practice of marrying more than one spouse. This is against what constitutes women’s rights.

Those challenging the verses interpretation point to two things. The first is the context in which the verse should be read, and the second is the condition to having more than one wife.

As to the context, one must understand that the Qur’an emerged in the first quarter of the 7th century. Almost all societies practiced polygyny. The Qur’an limited the number of wives, and it seemed to make sense then since most women in the Islamic sphere of influence were widows.

Times have changed. More and more women are now able to fend for themselves and families even though gender inequalities still abound.

The second point is subtler and deals with the conditions for taking more than one woman. In my view, the conditionality is an invitation to monogamy since polygyny is not mandatory, but permitted by Sunah (the teaching and practices of Prophet Muhammad). In Islam, dealing justly with one’s wife is an obligation and this applies to such things as housing, food, clothing, and kind treatment. If a husband is not sure of being able to deal justly with them, then he is commanded to marry only one, so goes the argument.

Each individual marriage contract carries the same weight in an Islamic court of law and thus men are not allowed to openly attach greater importance to one wife at the expense of the other. Such behaviour would not be equitable treatment and might even be construed as oppression. In Sunah Abu Dawud, the Prophet is reported by Abu Hurairah to have said that, “whoever has two wives and leans unduly to one of them will come on the Day of Judgement with half his body leaning.”

The stress is that Moslem men must treat all their wives equally. It is not enough to give them equal time and wealth, argue some of the latter day Islamic scholars. Even in lovemaking.

As most men will know, each woman has her unique body and each is attractive in her own way. Some will be more attractive and others less – beauty lies in the eye of the beholder. As such, the time one spends in a woman’s bed varies accordingly and in direct proportion to their attractiveness.

Would this then be construed as unfair treatment? It does not matter whether a man spends three nights in each one of his two wives’ beds , for example. But does he make love to each of them in equal measure? If not, and I dare say none will be able to do so, then the condition for taking more than one has been violated.

No wonder the same Qur’an admonishes Moslems, “…you will never be able to do perfect justice (love and sex) between wives even if it is your ardent desire” (Surat an-Nisa’: 129).

Why then do Moslem men like my father marry more than one? Perhaps it is pure egotism and so-called cultural norms. Otherwise how can one square the fact that despite scriptural evidence that whoever commits a small injustice to one’s folk will taste brimstone fire, one still finds Moslem men marrying more than one wife?

Bayano Valy is the Gender Links Lusophone Editor based in Mozambique. This article is part of the Gender Links Opinion and Commentary Service, bringing you fresh views on everyday news.